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Question: I have recently come across the teaching that Jesus died spiritually on the cross before He died physically. To me, the bible doesn't teach such a concept. Can you please explain to me the significance of this teaching, as it seems to take away some of the significance of Jesus' blood in our redemption, or then the spiritual death would have been for nothing, which I doubt if He did actually die spiritually. Searching for an answer.

Answer: JESUS DID NOT DIE SPIRITUALLY! (Part 1) A terrible misunderstanding has arisen (mainly among charismatics) concerning the death of Jesus Christ for the sins of the world. Some say Christ had to be tortured in Hell to redeem mankind. Others simply say that His spirit had to die; they reject the part about His suffering in Hell. However, both of these ideas are wrong; dead wrong! The Bible is clear on the matter:

"Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed" (1 Peter 2:24).

One can't get much plainer than that. Our sins were paid for by the death of Christ's BODY on the Cross. It was by His "stripes" that we were healed. Webster refers the word "stripes" to the punishment Christ endured on the Cross. Even if one applied it to the scourging Jesus endured (Mark 15:15), it was there that His precious BLOOD first began to be poured out. "Stripes" therefore refers ONLY to the physical shedding of blood in the whole process of crucifixion. How can "stripes" refer to the death of Christ's spirit? Our sins were paid for by the physical death of Christ. Christ's spirit did not die.

First it must be established that Christ did indeed GO to Hell. Nevertheless, this was AFTER He had atoned for the sins of the world on the Cross. Christ did not suffer in Hell; He only went there:

"Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption" (Acts 2:27).

"For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth" (Matthew 12:40).

Christ's descent into the heart of the earth makes Hell more complicated than many suspect. Christ did not suffer; He went to Paradise! Scripture appears to teach that at one time, Hell contained Paradise within it:

"And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise" (Luke 23:43).

"For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth" (Matthew 12:40).

Christ was in the heart of the earth; yet He was in Paradise. It appears that this Paradise is no longer a region of Hell. It has been moved up to one of the heavenly regions in the Third Heaven:

"I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;) such an one caught up to the third heaven. 4 How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter" (1 Corinthians 12:2).

There is certainly no "heaven" in the center of the earth, therefore Christ moved Paradise upwards (probably some time after His Resurrection):

"Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men. (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth? He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.)" (Ephesians 4:8-10)

Why doesn't the Bible simply say Christ went to Paradise? Why call it "Hell" if Christ did not go to the terrible place of darkness? It is for the simple reason that Paradise was a region in Hell at that time. Christ did go to Hell. Only, He did not have to experience torment in its dark regions.

This can be better understood by taking note of how the Bible (King James Version) speaks upon other subjects. The Bible says Hell is female in type: "Therefore hell hath enlarged herself, and opened her mouth without measure: and their glory, and their multitude, and their pomp, and he that rejoiceth, shall descend into it" (Isaiah 5:14).

This is quite interesting since man's body and soul are likewise figuratively revealed as female. Notice how king David speaks of his own soul:

"My soul shall make her boast in the LORD: the humble shall hear thereof, and be glad" (Psalms 34:2).

The Bible says man has a "spirit" within this soul:

"For the word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart" (Hebrews 4:12).

As marrow is inside the bone, so is the spirit inside of man's soul (Psalm 63:5; Proverbs 17:22). This is all made to connect with the present subject when one realizes that in Scripture man's whole being is often referred to by simply his soul alone. The Bible certainly does not mean to leave out the spirit, which is the highest intellectual part of man. Yet, it often refers to the whole man himself simply as a "soul":

"And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul" (Genesis 2:7).

The earth is seen as female in type, just like the soul (Genesis 4:11). The earth is often a picture of man. The outer shell of the earth would be a picture of man's outward body. Therefore, just as the earth has within her an inward region called Hell, so does man's body have within it an inward region called the soul. Yet, if one were to cut open man's body, one would not be able to see the soul with physical eyes. Neither perhaps, (unless God revealed it) would one be able to see all of Hell if one were enabled to dig deep enough into the earth.

Inside of Hell, at one time, was Paradise. Inside of man's soul is a spirit. Thus, when one refers to man as a soul this does not rule out the spirit (Genesis 17:14) since the spirit is within her. In the same way, Christ was said to go to Hell, since He went to the region of Paradise that was once within her.

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Excerpted from THE KINGDOM ALERT UPDATE #23 Part 1 (7-03-99)

JESUS DID NOT DIE SPIRITUALLY! (Part 2)

Many claim that Christ atoned for the sins of the world by dying physically on the Cross AND through suffering in Hell. Others do not go quite this far, but nevertheless claim that Jesus "died spiritually" on the Cross. This so-called "spiritual death" of Jesus is the ground and support for the myth of Christ suffering in Hell. If this "spiritual death" idea is proven to be wrong doctrinally, the whole thing will fall to the ground. Last week it was shown that Jesus went to Paradise which was once in Hell:

"And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise" (Luke 23:43).

The King James Version is clear. There is no time for any suffering in Hell of Jesus since He and the thief were to be in Paradise that very day after dying physically. This part of the doctrine is therefore at once refuted Biblically. Jesus did not suffer in Hell. But let us meet an objection. Did not Jesus bear our punishment? And does not mankind deserve absolute, eternal torment in Hell? Therefore, would not Jesus have to go to Hell and suffer to bear the punishment we deserved? This objection can be dismissed by observing three points:

1. Based on such logic, Christ would have to stay in Hell for all eternity since that is what mankind deserves. Since He did not suffer for all eternity, there is obviously something wrong with the logic.

2. The lost do not go to "Hell" for all eternity in the first place. The lost end up in the "Lake of Fire." Hell is only the intermediate holding prison:

"And the sea gave up the dead which were in it; and death and hell delivered up the dead which were in them: and they were judged every man according to their works. And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death. And whosoever was not found written in the book of life was cast into the lake of fire" (Revelation 20:13-15).

The lost clearly come out of Hell to go into the Lake of Fire. Therefore, for the argument to even begin to be valid, the Bible must show Christ suffering in the Lake of Fire. Yet, it says Christ was not left in "Hell." This is not the Lake of Fire, nor does it say He suffered in Hell.

3. The objection fails to understand that the reason Christ did not have to suffer for all eternity in the same place (i.e. the Lake of Fire) as lost man is because He is greater than lost man. When man fell in Adam, he became bound to suffer death for all eternity in the Lake of Fire. Jesus did not have to suffer eternal death in the Lake of Fire because Jesus is more valuable than man. His physical death on the Cross wipes out the sin debt of the whole human race. All man must do is receive this free gift through believing. If it is logical that Jesus must suffer in the Lake of Fire, then it is logical that He would have to do so billions of times, a different time for every person (an absurdity)! Because Christ is so much greater than man, it only took His one death to redeem every person. If Christ did not have to die a separate death for every person, then neither did He have to suffer in the same place they will have to go if they reject His free gift.

How are believers ever to arrive at a clear understanding of this subject? It is only through Biblical revelation that we can ever know such things. If Jesus died spiritually, why then does the Bible say man was redeemed by His Blood when He died on the Cross? Certainly, the "spirit" is greater than the body. If Christ died spiritually to redeem mankind, then it would be clearly stated in Scripture. But what do we find?:

"Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed" (1 Peter 2:24).

"And you, that were sometime alienated and enemies in your mind by wicked works, yet now hath he reconciled 22 In the body of his flesh through death, to present you holy and unblameable and unreproveable in his sight" (Colossians 1:21).

"By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all" (Hebrews 10:10).

Why does it say "body" in these verses? Why not "spirit"? If Christ died spiritually, then His spirit was "offered." Yet it says "body."

"Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things, as silver and gold, from your vain conversation received by tradition from your fathers; But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot" (1 Peter 1:18-19).

Why "blood"? Why not "spirit"?

"Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace" (Ephesians 2:15).

Why "flesh" and not "spirit"? These verses are clear. God-willing, we will continue to look at this issue in upcoming weeks, mainly concentrating on objections that are made against this truth.

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Excerpted from THE KINGDOM ALERT UPDATE #24 Part 2 (7-10-99)

JESUS DID NOT DIE SPIRITUALLY! (Part 3)

It has been noted that Jesus did not suffer in Hell:

"And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise" (Luke 23:43).

There was no time for Him to do so. Jesus would be in the Paradise side of Hell that very day. There is therefore no time for any suffering. Furthermore, we have seen that the Scriptures clearly teach that Jesus died physically to redeem mankind, and that His death took place on a material tree:

"Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed" (1 Peter 2:24).

Notice the above verse says "body on a tree." It does not say "spirit" or "Hell." The above arguments should be enough to convince anyone not to add to God's Word and go beyond what is clearly written therein in regard to the death of Jesus. Any other Scriptures that appear to imply a spiritual death or suffering in Hell should be interpreted by the above facts. Nevertheless, let us deal with some of these Scriptures that are used by Kenneth Copeland:

"Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand" (Isaiah 53:10).

This verse says that the Lord's "soul" would be made an offering for sin. This is interpreted to mean Christ's "spirit" had to die. Although the Bible sometimes uses "soul" to refer to both the "soul" and "spirit" (the whole inner person), it never uses "soul" to refer to the "spirit." Man is in three parts, body, soul and spirit:

"And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ" (1 Thessalonians 5:23).

Therefore, the charismatic doctrine would have to maintain that Jesus died in BOTH soul and spirit to even begin to use Isaiah 53. On the other hand, the entire New Testament knows nothing of the Lord's "soul" being made an offering for sin. It refers only to the Lord's physical body dying:

"By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all" (Hebrews 10:10).

What then can Isaiah be referring to? It plainly states that the "soul" of Jesus was made an offering. The mistake here is one of the greatest and most common in Bible interpretation. It is made continually in regard to numerous doctrines. It is the mistake a child makes when he asks his mother:

"Why does the Bible say fowls fly in HEAVEN? Do birds fly where God's throne is" (Hoseah 4:3)?

Of course, the wise mother will answer that the word "heaven" refers to more than the place of God's throne. The sky is called a "heaven." Outer space is also called a "heaven." And neither of these refer to the third Heaven of the Lord's throne.

This is the same mistake that is made with Bible words such as salvation, justification, damnation, condemnation, kingdom, etc. Many people do not grab a good dictionary and study the context of various Bible words. The Bible teaches that the servant of God is to "rightly divide the Word." Christians would do well to rightly divide the "words" that make up that Word.

Let us notice the word "soul." Webster 1828 lists "life" as one definition. The Lord's "life" was indeed made an offering for sin:

"Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for many" (Matthew 20:28).

However, the Lord gave only His PHYSICAL life for sin. Does the Bible itself reveal that the word "soul" can mean "physical life"? Notice the following Scripture:

"For whosoever eateth the fat of the beast, of which men offer an offering made by fire unto the LORD, even the soul that eateth it shall be cut off from his people" (Leviticus 7:25).

It says "the soul that eateth it." Was it the inward part of man that could sinfully eat this fat or the outward? Certainly the verse is not referring to a non-material part of man! Notice another verse:

"Say, I pray thee, thou art my sister: that it may be well with me for thy sake; and my soul shall live because of thee" (Genesis 12:13).

Could the Egyptians have killed Abraham's non-material being? Of course not. "My soul" must refer to Abraham's physical life. This is the only thing man could kill:

"And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell" (Matthew 10:28).

The Lord Himself teaches that man cannot kill a non-material soul. Yet, man can take a "physical life." This brings up an interesting point. The Bible teaches that only God can kill a non-material "soul." Did the Father kill the inward "soul" of Jesus? Men certainly could not have slain it. When the physical body dies, the "soul" lives on until it is placed in either the realm of life or death (Luke 16:22-25).

Many Christian leaders have embraced the doctrine that Jesus died spiritually, although they reject Copeland's idea that Jesus suffered in Hell. Yet, man cannot kill the non-material part (soul or spirit) of man. Only God can kill a soul or spirit (Hebrews 4:12; Matthew 10:28). A non-material soul cannot be crucified on a tree. Thus, these evangelicals who have embraced the JDS doctrine while denying the Copeland doctrine are in a confused position. Although it is heretical, the Copeland idea is at least here a bit more reasonable in one aspect. They rightly see that a non-material "soul" cannot be slain on a tree. Therefore, they have Jesus "spiritually" dying in Hell. It is not logical to have Jesus dying on the Cross "spiritually." That idea is absurd. A tree cannot slay a non-material part of man. Will these evangelicals hold that God the Father killed Jesus after He died physically on the Cross?

The inward "ghost" of man does not die when the body dies:

"Then Abraham gave up the ghost, and died in a good old age, an old man, and full of years; and was gathered to his people" (Genesis 25:8).

"Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost" (Matthew 27:50).

Notice the "ghost" is given up. It does not die unless it is then placed in the realm of destruction. Abraham's ghost went to Paradise (in the heart of the earth) when he died:

"And he cried and said, Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip the tip of his finger in water, and cool my tongue; for I am tormented in this flame" (Luke 16:24).

The Ghost of Jesus went to the same place. That the non-material being (soul, ghost or spirit) of Jesus did not die can be proven from the same Scripture that proves He did not suffer in Hell:

"And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise" (Luke 23:43).

When did the non-material soul of Jesus die? Jesus said He would be with the thief on the cross that very day in Paradise. The whole inner being of Jesus (spirit and soul) was in Paradise ALIVE that very day. Do any imagine that Jesus was in Paradise in the heart of the earth without a soul or spirit? His body was in the tomb. There could be no "Me" to be with in Paradise if the "Me" did not refer to Christ's whole inner being. The Ghost of Jesus was alive and well in Paradise with the thief and Abraham.

In conclusion, a soul or spirit cannot be slain by man on a tree. And the inward Man of Jesus was alive and well with the thief in Paradise that same day. There is nothing mentioned, nor is there room for some imaginary "soul" death of Jesus. Isaiah therefore refers to the "physical life" of Jesus.

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Excerpted from THE KINGDOM ALERT UPDATE #25 Part 3 (7-17-99)


More on This Topic

Are there other scriptures that refer to Jesus in hell?
Was Jesus tortured by Satan in hell after his physical death on the cross?


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